# Grade 11 Objective 5 1 During an investigation,

Grade 11 Objective 5 1 During an investigation, students accelerated boxes using different forces and then determined the masses of the boxes. the mass in grams of a box that requires 0.1 newton to make it 2 accelerate 2 m/s ? A B C D 50 g 20 g 0.05 g 0.02 g What is Students conducting an investigation on forces pushed a box across a smooth floor using different amounts of force.

The students collected the following data: Trials 2 Mass of box (kg) Distance Box is Moved (m) Time (s) 1 15 kg 5m 30 s 2 15 kg

5m 25 s 3 15 kg 5m 15 s 4 15 kg 5m 5s Which of the following calculated values would be the same for all 4 trials? A B C D

Acceleration Power Speed Work 3 A ball moving at 30 m/s has a momentum of 15 kgm/s. The mass of the ball is A B C D 45 kg 15 kg 2.0 kg 0.5 kg 4 How much work is performed when a 50 kg crate is pushed 15 m with a force of 20 N? F 300 J

G 750 J H 1,000 J J 15,000 J 5 If a force of 100 newtons was exerted on an object and no work was done, the object must have A B C D accelerated rapidly remained motionless decreased its velocity gained momentum 6 The weight lifter used a force of 980 N to raise the barbell over her head in 5.21 seconds. Approximately how much work did she do in raising the barbell? F 380 J G 982 J

H 2,000 J J 10,000 J 7 A mechanic used a hydraulic lift to raise a 12,054 N car 1.89 m above the floor of a garage. It took 4.75 s to raise the car. What was the power output of the lift? A B C D 489 W 1815 W 4796 W 30,294 W Acceleration of an Electrically Powered Bicycle 8 According to this graph, what was the bicycles acceleration between 6 and 10 seconds? A

B C D 0.0 m/s 2 0.65 m/s 2 1.6 m/s 2 6.5 m/s 2 9 An advertisement claims that a certain truck has the most powerful engine in its class. If the engine has more power, which of the following can the trucks engine do, compared to every other engine in its class? F G H J Produce fewer emissions Operate more efficiently Perform work faster Accelerate longer

10 What is the net force exerted on a 90.0 kg race-car driver while the race car is accelerating from 0 to 44.7 m/s in 4.50 s? F G H J 9.8 N 20 N 201 N 894 N 11 Starting from rest at the center of a skating rink, two skaters push off from each other over a time period of 1.2 s. What is the force of the push by the smaller skater? F G H J 16 N 32 N 88 N

100 N 12 A horizontal force of 600 N is used to push a box 8 m across a room. Which of these variables must be known to determine the power used in moving the box? A B C D The weight of the box The potential energy of the box The time it takes to move the box The length of the box 13 The speed of sound in human tissue is about 1600 m/s. If an ultrasound pulse takes 1.5 10 5 s to travel through a tissue, what is the thickness of the tissue? F G H

J 2.4 km 2.4 m 24 cm 24 mm 14 A 0.500 kg ball with a speed of 4.0 m/s strikes a stationary 1.0 kg target. If momentum is conserved, what is the total momentum of the ball and target after the collision? A B C D 0.0 kgm/s 0.5 kgm/s 1.0 kgm/s 2.0 kgm/s 15 Mass (kg)

Velocity (m/s) 100 3 150 2 The table contains data for two wrecking balls being used to demolish a building. What is the difference in momentum between the two wrecking balls? F G H J 300 kgm/s 200 kgm/s 150 kgm/s 0 kgm/s 16

A woman lifts a 57-newton weight a distance of 40 centimeters each time she does a particular exercise. It takes her 0.60 second to lift the weight. How much power does she supply for lifting the weight one time? F G H J 24 W 34 W 38 W 95 W 17 The 500 g cart is moving in a straight line at a constant speed of 2 m/s. Which of the following must the 250 g toy car have in order to maintain the same momentum as the cart? F G H J

An acceleration of 5 m/s2 for 2 seconds A potential energy of 20 J A constant velocity of 4 m/s An applied force of 5 N for 5 seconds Velocity (m/s) Time (s) Car Q Car R Car S Car T 1 1 2 2

0 2 2 0 4 1 3 1 2 6 2 4

2 0 8 4 5 1 2 10 8 18 The table above shows experimental data collected when four cars moved along a straight-line path. According to these data, which car moved with a constant acceleration of 2 m/s2? A B C D

Car Q Car R Car S Car T 19 A cyclist moves at a constant speed of 5 m/s. If the cyclist does not accelerate during the next 20 seconds, he will travel A B C D 0m 4m 50 m 100 m 20 A 1-kilogram ball has a kinetic energy of 50 joules. The velocity of the ball is F

G H J 5 m/s 10 m/s 25 m/s 50 m/s 21 The space shuttle orbits Earth at approximately 8000 m/s. The shuttle stays in orbit because the A shuttles action is balanced by Earths equal and opposite reaction B combination of gravity and the shuttles inertia creates a curved path parallel to Earths surface C net gravitational force is zero at the shuttles distance from Earths center D force of Earths gravity pulls the shuttle downward and the force of the moons gravity pulls the shuttle upward 22

The frog leaps from its resting position at the lakes bank onto a lily pad. If the frog has a mass of 0.5 kg and the acceleration of the leap is 3 m/s2, what is the force the frog exerts on the lakes bank when leaping? A B C D 0.2 N 0.8 N 1.5 N 6.0 N 23 Which of these is the best description of the action-reaction force pair when the space shuttle lifts off from the launch pad? A The ground pushes the rocket up while exhaust gases push down on the ground. B Exhaust gases push down on air while the air pushes up on the rocket. C The rocket pushes exhaust gases down while the exhaust gases push the rocket up.

D Gravity pulls the rocket exhaust down while friction pushes up against the atmosphere. 24 After shooting a cannonball, a cannon recoils with a much lower velocity than the cannonball. This is primarily because, compared to the cannonball, the cannon has a F much greater mass G smaller amount of momentum H greater kinetic energy J smaller force applied to it 25 How many newtons of force does a 50.0 kg deer exert on the ground because of gravity? Record and bubble in your answer on the answer document. 26 Which factor would most likely cause a communications satellite orbiting Earth to return to Earth from its orbit? F An increase in the satellites forward momentum G An increase in solar energy striking the satellite

H A decrease in the satellites size J A decrease in the satellites velocity 27 When the air is released from a balloon, the air moves in one direction, and the balloon moves in another direction. Which statement does this situation best illustrate? F G H J What goes up must come down. For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. The shape and size of an object affect air resistance. The acceleration due to Earths gravity is 9.8 m/s2. 28 The picture above shows the directions in which water leaves this scallops shell. Which picture below shows the direction the scallop will move? A C

B D 29 A wet bar of soap slides 1 meter across a wet tile floor without appearing to slow down. Which of these statements explains why the bar of soap fails to slow down? F G H J A constant force on an object produces a constant positive acceleration. An object in motion tends to remain in motion in the absence of an external force. A moving object having constant velocity contains kinetic energy. An objects weight is proportional to its mass. 30

Which of these would cause the gravitational force between Earth and the sun to decrease? F G H J An increase in the length of a day on Earth An increase in the distance between Earth and the sun An increase in the number of planets orbiting the sun An increase in the masses of Earth and the sun 31 A hockey player pushed a puck toward the opposite side of a level ice rink. The player expected the puck to continue all the way across the ice, but the puck slowed and stopped before reaching the other side. Which of these best explains why the puck failed to slide all the way to the opposite side? F G H J The pucks temperature changed.

An upward force acted on the puck. The pucks momentum remained unchanged. An opposing force acted on the puck. 32 The pictures show how an air bag functions in a collision. How much momentum in kg m/s does the air bag absorb from the crash-test dummy if all the crash-test dummys momentum is absorbed by the air bag? Record and bubble in your answer to the nearest whole number on the answer document. 33 A leaf from an apple tree falls to the ground more slowly than an apple falls. As an explanation of this observation, the ancient Greeks theory of natural place has been replaced by a more recent theory involving gravitational force and A B C D atomic weight inertial mass

air resistance kinetic energy 34 Which setup would require the least force to move a heavy resistance? A C B D 35 What is the efficiency of a pulley system if 25% of the energy applied to the system is converted to heat? A B C D 100% 75%

50% 25% 36 The diagram shows an electric motor lifting a 6 N block a distance of 3 m. The total amount of electrical energy used by the motor is 30 J. How much energy does the motor convert to heat? F 9J G 12 J H 18 J J 21 J 37 Which lever arrangement requires the least effort force to raise a 500 N resistance? F H G J

38 What is the efficiency of an air conditioner if there is a work input of 320 J and a work output of 80 J? F 4% G 25% H 240% J 400% 39 Which configuration of pulleys and belts shown below will result in the fastest rotation of Spindle 2? F H G J 40 Which of these represents a properly balanced system?

A C B D 41 Which lever requires the least effort to lift the load? 42 The image on the screen is inverted because light rays A B C D condense as they pass through the pinhole travel through the opening in straight lines refract as they strike the screen are polarized by the materials of the screen

43 One tuning fork is struck and placed next to an identical fork. The two forks do not touch. The second tuning fork starts to vibrate because of F interference G the Doppler effect H resonance J standing waves 44 The pitch of a sound made by plucking a guitar string is determined by the A B C D frequency of the vibration produced strength of the plucking force distance between the strings shape of the guitar body 45

Which wave has the greatest velocity? A B C D 46 When trying to spear a fish in water, a person needs to take into account the way light bends as it moves from water into air. The bending of light as it passes from one medium into another is known as F reflection G refraction H diffraction J polarization Laser Light Striking a DVD 47

When a DVD is read, laser light touches the DVD surface and is then measured at location A. What allows light to return to location A after striking the DVD surface? F G H J Conduction Refraction Magnification Reflection 48 An empty cup was tightly covered with plastic wrap, and a few grains of salt were sprinkled on top of the plastic. When a tuning fork was struck and placed slightly above the plastic wrap, the salt began to move. Which characteristic of waves does the movement of the salt best demonstrate? A B C D Echo formation Diffraction

Resonance Specular reflection 49 The diagram shows waves approaching a barrier. Which pattern will be formed after the waves pass through the opening in the barrier? A C B D 50 A tuning fork with a frequency of 256 Hz vibrates when struck. Because of these vibrations, a nearby tuning fork begins to vibrate without being struck. Which of the following best accounts for the vibration of the second tuning fork? F G H J

Resonance Polarization Diffraction Refraction 51 Diverging lenses are useful to people who suffer from nearsightedness because the lenses can cause images of distant objects to be focused on the retina. Lenses allow images to be focused on the retina because of F G H J diffusion reflection diffraction refraction 52 A guitar player is seated next to a piano. The piano player strikes an E key on the piano. The guitarist reports that this causes the E string on his guitar to vibrate. What is the name of this phenomenon?

A B C D Polarization Resonance Reflection Diffraction 53 A surface wave generated by an earthquake was recorded at Seismic Station 1. Forty seconds later the same wave was recorded at Seismic Station 2. What accounts for the time difference? F G H J The origin of the wave is closer to Seismic Station 1. The speed of the wave decreases with distance. The wavelength is longer at Seismic Station 2. The wave frequency increases when the wave passes through soil.

54 Which process best shows the conversion of solar energy to chemical energy? F Prevailing winds causing windmills to spin G Green plants making their own food H Uranium producing heat to make steam J Tides generating electricity 55 What is the potential energy of the rock? A B C D 59,900 joules 64,600 joules 93,100 joules 121,600 joules 56 Which of the following is an example of solar energy being converted into chemical energy? F Plants producing sugar during the day

G Water evaporating and condensing in the water cycle H The sun unevenly heating Earths surface J Lava erupting from volcanoes for many days 57 Why is the sum of the products energy in this reaction less than the sum of the reactants energy? A B C D Energy is given off as heat. The products absorb available energy. Energy is trapped in the reactants. The reactants energy is less than the melting point of glucose. 58 An inventor claims to have created an internal combustion engine that converts 100 kJ of chemical energy from diesel fuel to 140 kJ of mechanical energy. This claim violates the law of conservation of F momentum G inertia

H energy J mass Solar Radiation and Earth Effect 59 Amount of Energy per Second (terajoules) Solar radiation reaching Earth 173,410 Radiation reflected back into space 52,000 Radiation heating atmosphere, landmasses, and oceans 81,000

Radiation producing winds and ocean currents 370 Radiation used in photosynthesis 40 Radiation resulting in evaporation of water ? Assuming the chart contains all energy transformations in the Earth system, how much solar radiation goes toward evaporating water? F 40,000 terajoules G 92,410 terajoules H 121,410 terajoules J 133,410 terajoules 60

According to the equation E = mc2, mass F G H J travels at the speed of light can be transformed into energy contains light energy is doubled when exposed to light 61 What is the approximate difference in gravitational potential energy of the two shaded boxes? F G H J 19 J 39 J 59 J 79 J

62 Temperature (C) Mass (g) Metal Block 120 100 Water 20 400 The temperature of the water increases by 8C when the metal block is added. Which could cause the temperature of the water to increase by 10C after the metal block is added? F G

H J Using 500 g of water Using a larger beaker Adding more 20C water Adding heat to the metal block 63 Because ancient Greeks lived close to water, they may have enjoyed a more constant climate than if they had lived inland. Water warms up and cools down more slowly than land. This is because of waters F G H J boiling point specific heat melting point specific gravity 64 How much heat is lost by 2.0 grams of water if the temperature

drops from 31C to 29C? The specific heat of water is 4.184 J/gC. A B C D 4.0 J 6.2 J 8.4 J 16.7 J 65 Heat convection occurs in gases and liquids. Heat convection does not occur in solids because solids are unable to A B C D absorb heat by vibrating transfer heat by fluid motion emit radiation by reflecting light exchange heat by direct contact

66 A solar heater uses energy from the sun to heat water. The heaters panel is painted black to F improve emission of infrared radiation G reduce the heat loss by convection currents H improve absorption of infrared radiation J reduce the heaters conducting properties 67 The moons surface becomes hot during the long lunar day because the sun transfers heat to the moon. This heat transfer is accomplished almost entirely through the process of F convection G refraction H conduction J radiation 68 In which container is the substance unable to transfer heat by convection? F H

G J Temperatures of Water in Different Containers Initial Temperature (C) Final Temperature (C) P 90 83 Q 90

76 Container 69 Container P and Container Q each were filled with 0.5 liter of water. The water was heated to 90C. The table shows the temperatures after both containers were allowed to cool for 3 minutes. Compared to Container Q, Container P is a better A B C D conductor absorber radiator insulator 70 The transfer of heat by the movement of air currents in Earths atmosphere is an example of A

B C D conduction convection radiation fusion 71 An increase in greenhouse gases is considered harmful because it A B C D allows more heat to be trapped in the lower atmosphere depletes carbon dioxide in the atmosphere releases energy trapped inside Earth destroys light energy that plants need for photosynthesis 72 Which of these activities can help conserve natural resources?

F Recycling cardboard boxes G Washing small loads of laundry H Driving large cars J Building wooden fences 73 In West Texas and Southern California, high winds drive turbines that generate electricity. One advantage that wind energy has over energy generated from solar cells is that wind energy A B C D is plentiful everywhere can be generated at night produces cleaner energy is free of environmental hazards 74 Battery-powered cars produce less air pollution than gasolinepowered cars. However, one environmental concern of using battery-powered cars is that batteries A

B C D are heavier than gasoline engines waste more energy than gasoline engines contain toxic substances that are difficult to dispose of produce direct current rather than alternating current 75 All of these materials can be recycled except F aluminum G lumber H glass J coal 76 This picture shows a small section of a solar power plant. Which of these decreases the energy production at such power plants? F G H J

Cloudy skies Ozone in the air Hot weather Low humidity 77 Which of these produces most of the compounds responsible for causing acid rain? A B C D Nuclear fission Fossil fuels Solar cells Windmills 78 Before 1992, in order to prevent hydrogen gas from being produced, the zinc powder in some alkaline batteries was covered with mercury. Mercury is toxic to many life-forms. Which of the following

best explains how mercury from batteries got into the environment? A B C D Newly manufactured batteries were transported long distances. Operating batteries increased the temperature of conductors. Used batteries discarded in landfills decomposed. Voltage loss occurred between battery terminals. 79 One economic benefit of using rechargeable batteries instead of disposable batteries is that rechargeable batteries F G H J are cheaper to manufacture can be packaged in small containers can be used many times generate their own electricity

80 Electric power plants that burn fossil fuels generate billions of tons of carbon dioxide and other gases. How might replacing these power plants with solar cells affect the environment? A B C D The amount of water vapor in the atmosphere might increase. Less land might be needed to produce the same amount of electricity. Forest fires resulting from highly flammable emissions might be avoided. The amount of released gases that trap atmospheric heat might be reduced. 81 The typical automobiles kinetic energy is converted to heat energy when the brakes are applied. A braking system that converts kinetic energy to electrical energy instead of heat energy has been designed. The electrical energy can be used later to move the car again. How does a system like this benefit the environment?

F G H J Greater use of solar energy Ability to harness wind energy Decreased use of fossil fuels Use of renewable hydroelectricity 82 Heavy metals such as mercury, cadmium, and nickel are often found in landfills and occasionally leach into rivers, lakes, and other bodies of water. Such heavy metals are toxic to wildlife and to humans. Which of the following sources of environmental contamination is most often associated with these heavy metals? F G H J Batteries Plastics Automobile exhaust

Tobacco smoke 83 Which of these is an advantage of producing electricity using solar power plants rather than using coal-fired power plants? A B C D Solar power plants can operate for about 10 hours per day. Solar power plants can produce variable amounts of energy. Solar power plants produce fewer pollutants. Solar power plants require continuous sunlight. 84 Which of these devices uses the suns energy directly? A B C D Windmill

Hydroelectric dam Nuclear power plant Photovoltaic cell 85 A company has decided to market itself as environmentally friendly. If the company is going to sell calculators, the use of which energy source would produce the fewest by-products and the least waste? F G H J Rechargeable batteries Solar cells Dry-cell batteries Tesla coils Grade 11 Objective 5 Answer Key Grade 11 Objective 5 Answer Key Question

Correct Answer Objective Measured Student Expectation 1 A 5 IPC 4A 2002 Info Booklet 14 2 D 5

IPC 4A 2004 Info Booklet 25 3 D 5 IPC 4A 2003 TAKS 27 4 F 5 IPC 4A 2003 TAKS 42 5

B 5 IPC 4A 2003 TAKS 45 6 H 5 IPC 4A Apr 2004 TAKS 54 7 C 5

IPC 4A Jul 2004 TAKS 21 8 A 5 IPC 4A Jul 2004 TAKS 41 9 H 5 IPC 4A Apr 2006 TAKS 12 10

J 5 IPC 4A Apr 2006 TAKS 18 11 J 5 IPC 4A Apr 2006 TAKS 32 12 C 5

IPC 4A Oct 2005 TAKS 7 13 J 5 IPC 4A Oct 2005 TAKS 26 14 D 5 IPC 4A Oct 2005 TAKS 41 15

J 5 IPC 4A Oct 2005 TAKS 50 16 H 5 IPC 4A Feb 2006 TAKS 22 17 H 5

IPC 4A Feb 2006 TAKS 26 18 C 5 IPC 4A Feb 2006 TAKS 49 19 D 5 IPC 4A Feb 2006 TAKS 51 20

G 5 IPC 4A Jul 2006 TAKS 24 21 B 5 IPC 4B 2004 Info Booklet 22 22 C 5

IPC 4B 2003 TAKS 11 23 C 5 IPC 4B Apr 2004 TAKS 41 24 F 5 IPC 4B Jul 2004 TAKS 12 25

490 5 IPC 4B Jul 2004 TAKS 20 Source - item number Grade 11 Objective 5 Answer Key Question Correct Answer Objective Measured Student Expectation 26 J

5 IPC 4B Jul 2004 TAKS 38 27 G 5 IPC 4B Apr 2006 TAKS 52 28 D 5 IPC 4B

Oct 2005 TAKS 11 29 G 5 IPC 4B Oct 2005 TAKS 44 30 G 5 IPC 4B Feb 2006 TAKS 46 31 J

5 IPC 4B Jul 2006 TAKS 8 32 630 5 IPC 4B Jul 2006 TAKS 20 33 C 5 IPC 4B

Fall 2005 TAKS 17 34 C 5 IPC 4D 2002 Info Booklet 13 35 B 5 IPC 4D 2004 Info Booklet 23 36 G

5 IPC 4D 2003 TAKS 48 37 F 5 IPC 4D Apr 2004 TAKS 46 38 G 5 IPC 4D

Jul 2004 TAKS 10 39 H 5 IPC 4D Apr 2006 TAKS 22 40 C 5 IPC 4D Apr 2006 TAKS 29 41 F

5 IPC 4D Apr 2006 TAKS 50 42 B 5 IPC 5B 2004 Info Booklet 21 43 H 5 IPC 5B

2003 TAKS 32 44 A 5 IPC 5B Apr 2004 TAKS 55 45 B 5 IPC 5B Jul 2004 TAKS 7 46 G

5 IPC 5B Jul 2004 TAKS 14 47 J 5 IPC 5B Apr 2006 TAKS 6 48 C 5 IPC 5B

Apr 2006 TAKS 17 49 B 5 IPC 5B Oct 2005 TAKS 3 50 F 5 IPC 5B Oct 2005 TAKS 32 Source - item number Grade 11 Objective 5 Answer Key

Question Correct Answer Objective Measured Student Expectation 51 J 5 IPC 5B Feb 2006 TAKS 24 52 B 5

IPC 5B Jul 2006 TAKS 39 53 F 5 IPC 5B Fall 2005 TAKS 42 54 G 5 IPC 6A 2003 TAKS 14

55 C 5 IPC 6A 2003 TAKS 41 56 F 5 IPC 6A Apr 2004 TAKS 12 57 A 5

IPC 6A Apr 2004 TAKS 37 58 H 5 IPC 6A Apr 2004 TAKS 48 59 F 5 IPC 6A Apr 2004 TAKS 52

60 G 5 IPC 6A Oct 2005 TAKS 52 61 G 5 IPC 6A Feb 2006 TAKS 38 62 J 5

IPC 6A Fall 2005 TAKS 8 63 G 5 IPC 6A Fall 2005 TAKS 18 64 D 5 IPC 6B 2004 Info Booklet 24

65 B 5 IPC 6B 2003 TAKS 43 66 H 5 IPC 6B 2003 TAKS 50 67 J 5

IPC 6B Apr 2004 TAKS 8 68 J 5 IPC 6B Apr 2004 TAKS 42 69 D 5 IPC 6B Jul 2004 TAKS 43

70 B 5 IPC 6B Jul 2006 TAKS 13 71 A 5 IPC 6B Fall 2005 TAKS 27 72 F 5

IPC 6D 2003 TAKS 54 73 B 5 IPC 6D Apr 2004 TAKS 45 74 C 5 IPC 6D Jul 2004 TAKS 49

75 J 5 IPC 6D Jul 2004 TAKS 54 Source - item number Grade 11 Objective 5 Answer Key Question Correct Answer Objective Measured Student Expectation 76

F 5 IPC 6D Apr 2006 TAKS 4 77 B 5 IPC 6D Apr 2006 TAKS 37 78 C 5 IPC 6D

Oct 2005 TAKS 39 79 H 5 IPC 6D Feb 2006 TAKS 2 80 D 5 IPC 6D Feb 2006 TAKS 13 81

H 5 IPC 6D Feb 2006 TAKS 16 82 F 5 IPC 6D Feb 2006 TAKS 44 83 C 5 IPC 6D

Jul 2006 TAKS 9 84 D 5 IPC 6D Jul 2006 TAKS 19 85 G 5 IPC 6D Jul 2006 TAKS 28 Source - item number

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